The recently conducted OPSC-OCS Prelims 2022-23 examination has generated significant curiosity among the aspirants. Providing insights into the correct solutions for the multiple-choice questions. The key offers a comprehensive understanding of the expected responses and acts as a reference point for candidates to assess their performance.
The answer key for the OPSC-OCS Prelims 2022-23 presents a detailed analysis of each question, accompanied by a step-by-step explanation.
Candidates can use the answer key to evaluate their performance objectively, calculate their estimated scores, and anticipate their chances of qualifying for the next stage of the selection process. Additionally, the detailed explanations provided in the answer key contribute to the overall learning experience, helping candidates to grasp complex concepts and improve their problem-solving abilities.
Overall, the release of the OPSC-OCS Prelims 2022-23 Answer Key with comprehensive explanations marks a crucial step in the assessment process, guiding candidates towards effective preparation strategies and fostering their continuous growth and development in the competitive examination sphere.
Answer Key for OPSC-OCS Prelims 2022-23
Detailed Explanation for OPSC-OCS Prelims 2022-23 will be Upload Soon..
1. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of the Election Commission of India?
(1) It is an autonomous Legal Body
(2) Part XV of Indian Constitution deals with the Elections and the Election Commission
(3) The Election Commission was established on January 25, 1950
(4) Art. 328 provides bar on the interference of Courts in electoral matters.
(a) 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 4
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 3
Ans.: (a)
2. Which of the following Committees recommended for the creation of ‘Nyaya Panchayats’ at village level?
(a) L.M. Singhvi Committee
(b) G.V.K. Rao Committee
(c) Mohan Kanda Committee
(d) Ashok Mehta Committee
Ans.: (d)
3. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of ‘Attorney General of India?
(1) Attorney General of India is a part of India Judiciary
(2) Attorney General of India is appointed by President on the advice of Chief Justice of India
(3) The term of office of Attorney General of India is not fixed by the Constitution
(4) Attorney General of India has right to take part in the proceedings of both Houses of Parliament.
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 and 4
Ans.: (d)
4. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of Bills introduced in Parliament?
(1) If a Government Bill is rejected by the House in Parliament it amounts ‘vote of confidence’ in the Government
(2) The Government’s Bill introduction in the House necessitates a fifteen-day notice
(3) The ‘Taxation Laws (Amendment) Bill 2021’ comes under the category of Money Bill
(4) The Central Universities (Amendment) Bill 2021 comes under Ordinary Bill.
(a) 1 and 4
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 4
Ans.: (c)
5. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of ‘Types of Majority in Parliament’?
(1) Absolute majority-More than 50% of the House’s total Strength
(2) Simple Majority-The majority of more than 50% of those present and voting
(3) Effective Majority: Majority of the House’s effective strength.
(4) Effective Strength: means total strength excluding number of vacancies
(5) Special Majority: Majority of 2/3 members of total strength of the House
(a) 1, 3, 4 and 5
(b) 2, 3 and 5
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans.: (d)
6. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of ‘Sitting of Parliament’?
(1) In the year 1955 a Lok Sabha Committee had proposed a time-table for parliamentary sessions with three times a year
(2) It suggested Budget Session from February 1, to May 7
(3) It suggested Monsoon Session from July 1 to September 10
(4) It suggested Winter Session from November 15 to December 15
(a) 1 and 4
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 3 and 4
Ans.: (c)
7. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of ‘Procedure established by Law’ and ‘Due process of Law’?
(I) Under the principle of ‘Procedure established by Law’, as long as the government follows the procedures it has established, it’s actions are considered valid, even if they may appear unfair, or unjust to individuals
(II) ‘Due Process of Law’ doctrine not only checks if there is a Law to deprive the life and personal liberty of a person but also sees if the Law made is fair, just and not arbitrar4y.
(III) ‘Procedure established by Law’ is an American doctrine and ‘Due Process of Law’ is Indian constitutional doctrine.
(a) I is correct and II and III is not correct
(b) I and II are correct and III is not correct
(c) I and III are correct and II is not correct
(d) I, II and III are correct
Ans.: (b)
8. Which of the following while pursuing common interests of their Groups, attempt to influence the Public Policy making?
(a) Pressure Groups
(b) Elite Groups
(c) Bureaucracy
(d) Political Parties
Ans.: (a)
9. During which part of the ‘public policy cycle’ does the government explore potential policy responses?
(a) Values setting
(b) Policy formulation
(c) Policy implementation
(d) Policy feedback
Ans.: (b)
10. The final six months of the Election cycle, when the government announces popular government initiatives is known as -
(a) Green Z
(b) Yellow Zone
(c) Red Zone
(d) Blue Zone
Ans.: (*)
11. Which of the following are the features of ‘Good Governance’?
(1) Accountability
(2) Conservatism
(3) Rigidity
(4) Transparency
(5) Integrity
(6) Micro Management
(a) 2, 3 and 6
(b) 1, 2 and 6
(c) 3, 4 and 5
(d) 1, 4 and 5
Ans.: (d)
12. Which of the following are true about Public Policy?
(1) It is a way of doing things including rules and regulations
(2) It is a means of ‘authoritative allocation of values’
(3) It is for Public Sector Organisations
(4) ‘What the Government choose to do or not to do’
(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) All above
Ans.: (d)
13. Which one of the following statements is correct in respect of Art.21 of Indian Constitution?
(1) It guarantees Right to Life and Personal Liberty
(2) In the case of Narmada Bachao Andolan Vs Union of India 2020, Supreme Court held that ‘Right to Water’ is not a Fundamental Right but Legal Right
(3) Right to water is inferred from the Right to Life
(4) The Supreme Court also held that access to Clear Water is a Natural Right
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 4
Ans.: (a)
14. From which Constitution ‘Suspension of Fundamental Rights during Emergency’ was borrowed to Indian Constitution?
(a) Soviet Constitution, USSR
(b) Weimer Constitution of Germany
(c) French Constitution
(d) Swiss Constitution
Ans.: (b)
15. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of ‘Right to Education’?
(1) Art.21(A) of Indian Constitution provides Right to Education for free and compulsory education to all
(2) Right to Education Act was passed by Indian Parliament on August 4, 2009
(3) Right to Education came into force on November 14, 2009
(4) Art.21(A) was inserted in the Constitution by 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2004
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 2 and 4
Ans.: (d)
16. Which of the following are related to ‘Right to Privacy’?
(1) Art.21 of Indian Constitution
(2) Art.12 of Universal Declaration of Human Rights
(3) Art.17 of the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights.
(4) Art.8 of European Convention on Human Rights
(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) All above
Ans.: (d)
17. Which Article of Universal Declaration of Human Rights tells that the ‘Right of Nationality’ depends on one’s wish. “Every one has the Right to a Nationality”?
(a) Article 15
(b) Article 20
(c) Article 25
(d) Article 30
Ans.: (a)
18. With reference to inflation targeting by the Reserve Bank of India, consider the following statements:
1. In May 2016, the RBI Act, 1934 was amended to provide a statutory basis for the implementation of the flexible inflation targeting framework.
2. Under Section 45ZA, the Central Government, in consultation with the RBI, determines the inflation target in terms of the Consumer Price Index (CPI), once in five years.
3. On March 31, 2021, the Central Government retained the inflation target of 6 percent with the tolerance band of +2 percent for the next 5-year period - April 1, 2021 to March 31, 2026.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans.: (a)
19. Which of the following statements are true in relation to the G20 New Delhi Declaration?
1. All 83 paragraphs of the 2023 G20 New Delhi Leaders’ Declaration were unanimously approved.
2. It didn’t feature the conflict in Ukraine and its subsequent economic implications.
3. The declaration stressed the urgency of mobilizing US$4 trillion per year for clean energy technologies by 2030.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans.: (d)
20. MGNREGS is recognized as ‘core of the core’ scheme for achieving Sustainable Development Goals in India. MGNREGS was reported in the Voluntary National Review (VNR), 2017 by Government of India for its contribution to achieving which of the following SDGs directly?
1. SDG1 – No Poverty
2. SDG2 – Zero Hunger
3. SDG5 – Gender Equality
4. SDG10 – Reduced Inequalities
(a) 1, 2, 3
(b) 1, 3, 4
(c) 2, 3, 4
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4
Ans.: (b)
21. Consider the following statements:
1. Poverty line estimation in India has been based on the consumption expenditure and not on the income levels.
2. It is difficult to assess incomes of self-employed people, daily wage laborers etc., and there may be large fluctuations in income due to seasonal factors
Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both 1 and 2 are correct and 1 is the correct explanation of 2
(b) Both 1 and 1 are correct, and 2 is the correct explanation of 1
(c) Both the statements are correct but none is an explanation of the other
(d) Both the statements are correct but unrelated
Ans.: (b)
22. Which of the following terms are the components of forex reserves?
1. Foreign Currency Assets
2. Gold
3. Special Drawing Rights
4. The Reserve in the International Monetary Fund
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans.: (d)
23. Which of the following statements is NOT true in relation of PM-VISHWAKARMA?
(a) It was launched by the President of India on 17th September, 2023.
(b) It is a Central Sector Scheme
(c) The new scheme intends to provide recognition and holistic support to the traditional artisans & craftsmen working with their hands and elementary tools
(d) The scheme intends to improve the quality, scale and reach of artisans’ products and also to integrate them with MSME value chains
Ans.: (a)
24. With reference to GST, which of the following statements are true?
1. GST is based on a system of concurrency of indirect taxes, where every transaction attracts central as well as state GST
2. GST replaced a production-based taxation system by a consumption-based tax system
3. It brings destination principle for cross-border trading for which the poorer and consuming states are benefiting at the expense of more affluent and industrialized ones
(a) Only 1 and 2 are true
(b) Only 1 and 3 are true
(c) Only 2 and 3 are true
(d) All the above are true
Ans.: (d)
25. Which of the following statements is incorrect about Production Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme?
(a) It is one of the several schemes as part of the ‘Make in India’ initiative.
(b) Its aim is to incentivize manufacturers and promote domestic production.
(c) This initiative contributes to enhancing self-reliance in the country.
(d) This scheme is applicable only to pharmaceuticals, textiles and food processing sectors.
Ans.: (d)
26. In discharging its role as a facilitator for rural prosperity, NABARD is entrusted with responsibilities of
(a) Providing refinance to lending institutions in rural areas.
(b) Bringing about or promoting development of commercial banks.
(c) Evaluating, monitoring and inspecting all banks in rural areas.
(d) Monitoring all developmental projects in rural areas.
Ans.: (a)
27. India is one of the few countries experiencing falling child sex ratio. Which among the following statements could be the major reasons behind this phenomenon?
1. High female infant mortality (relative to male infant mortality).
2. Female foeticide.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of these
Ans.: (c)
28. Gases that trap heat in the atmosphere and cause global warming are called greenhouse bases.
Which of the following combinations are not included under the greenhouse gases?
(a) Carbon dioxide, Methane
(b) Nitrous oxide, Hydrofluorocarbons
(c) Carbon monoxide, Sulphur dioxide
(d) Carbon dioxide, water vapour
Ans.: (c)
29. More than 90 percent of all nitrogen are fixed as ammonia, nitrites, and nitrates by soil microorganisms. Symbiotic bacteria associated with leguminous plants fix nitrogen by the formation of root nodules. In which of the following plant nitrogen fixation does not occurs?
(a) Common Beans
(b) Soybeans
(c) Peanuts
(d) Oats
Ans.: (d)
30. For protection of plants and animal species and to provide for the prevention and control of water pollution, air pollution and the environment, government of India has taken adequate steps and several prevention, control and protection Acts has been enacted.
Which of the following combination of statements is correct?
(a) The water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974
The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981
The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
The Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972
(b) The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1972
The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981
The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
The Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1974
(c) The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974
The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1986
The Environment (Protection) Act, 1981
The Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972
(d) The water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981
The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974
The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
The Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972
Ans.: (a)
31. Government of Odisha has declared the following Biodiversity Heritage Sites (BHS) for the conservation of Biodiversity in the state.
Which of the following pairs (Name of the BHS and district) are not correct?
(a) Gandhamardan Hill Range: Bargarh and Balangir District
(b) Mandasaru Gorge: Kalahandi District
(c) Satkosia Gorge: Angul District
(d) Mahendragiri Hioll range: Gajapati District
Ans.: (b)
32. Acknowledging the years of efforts of tribal people in conserving 130 varieties of indigenous cultivars of rice, Koraput district was declared as a Globally Important Agricultural Heritage System.
Which one of the following pairs (Organisation: Year) is correct?
(a) Food and agricultural Organization (FAO) of United Nations: 1982
(b) Food and Agricultural Organization (FAO) of United Nations: 1992
(c) Food and Agricultural Organization (FAO) of United Nations: 2002
(d) Food and Agricultural Organization (FAO) of United Nations: 2012
Ans.: (c)
33. The Govt. of India had launched “Project Tiger”, the largest species conservation initiative of its kind in the world on 1st April 1973 to promote conservation of the tiger. Nine tiger reserves were established in different states of India in the year 1973.
Which one of the following combinations does not include the Tiger Reserves established in the year 1973?
(a) Corbett Tiger Reserve, Similipal Tiger Reserve
(b) Dholpur-Karauli Tiger Reserve, Satkosia Tiger Reserve
(c) Manas Tiger Reserve, Sunderbans Tiger Reserve
(d) Ranthambore Tiger Reserve, Kanha Tiger Reserve
Ans.: (d)
34. A marine protected area (MPA) is essentially a space in the ocean where human activities are strictly regulated and these places are given special protections for natural or historic marine resources by local, state, territorial, native, regional, or national authorities.
Which one of the following is not a MPA?
(a) Periyar in Kerala
(b) Bhitarkanika in Odisha
(c) Malvan Marine in Maharashtra
(d) Coring in Andhra Pradesh
Ans.: (a)
35. The United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED), also known as the ‘Earth Summit’, was held in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil, from 3-14 June 1992.
Which of the following combinations of statements about the conference is correct?
i. This global conference was held on the occasion of 20th anniversary of the first human environment conference held in Stockholm, Sweden
ii. It focused on the “impact of human socio-economic activities on the environment”
iii. Representatives from 79 countries participated in the conference
(a) i and ii
(b) i and iii
(c) ii and iii
(d) i, ii and iii
Ans.: (a)
36. Microsoft, the recipient of UN Global Action Award, is now committing to remove from the environmental all the carbon the company has emitted either directly or by electrical consumption since it was founded in 1975 by 2050.
From which year the company has adapted to be carbon neutral?
(a) 2010
(b) 2012
(c) 2014
(d) 2016
Ans.: (b)
37. World Environment Day is the United Nations Day for encouraging worldwide awareness and action to protect our environment. In 1972, the UN General Assembly designated 5 June as World Environment Day (WED). The first celebration, under the theme “Only One Earth” took place in 1973. Thereafter every year the day is celebrated with a theme.
Which of the following pairs (Year and Theme) is not correct?
i. 2023 : “solutions to Plastic Pollution”
ii. 2022 : “Only one Earth”
iii. 2021 : “Ecosystem Restoration”
iv. 2020 : “Time for Environment”
(a) i
(b) i and ii
(c) ii and iii
(d) iv
Ans.: (d)
38. One light year is equivalent to roughly how many kilometers?
(a) 1.5 trillion kilometer
(b) 4.5 trillion kilometer
(c) 7.5 trillion kilometer
(d) 9.5 trillion kilometer
Ans.: (d)
39. Jet fuel used in turbine based aviation engine mainly consists of
(a) Petrol
(b) Diesel
(c) Kerosene
(d) CNG
Ans.: (c)
40. The light emitting diode (LED) is made of
(a) Si
(b) Ge
(c) GaN
(d) Tungsten
Ans.: (c)
41. Meniscus rise in glass thermometer is due to the change in
(a) Density
(b) Mass
(c) Heat capacity
(d) Thermal conductivity
Ans.: (a)
42. A glass of (1) tap water, (2) distilled water and (3) sea water is cooled to its solidification. The order in which they will solidify first is
(a) tap water, distilled water, sea water
(b) distilled water, sea water, tap water
(c) sea water, tap water, distilled water
(d) distilled water, tap water, sea water
Ans.: (d)
43. Consider the following regarding the Revolt of 1857.
1. Indore troops had joined the Revolt against the wish of their king.
2. Mangal Pandey was executed at Meerut.
3. Tantia Tope was active both at Kanpur and Jhanshi.
4. Sindhia sought refuge from the British at Agra.
Which of the following are correct?
(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) Only 3 and 4
(d) Only 1 and 4
Ans.: (c)
44. Consider the statements regarding the nationalist Romesh Chunder Dutt.
1. He translated Ramayana and Mahabharata.
2. He was president of the Indian National Congress.
3. He qualified the ICS.
4. He was president of the Bongiya Sahitya Parishad.
Which of the following statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) Only 2 and 3
(d) All are correct
Ans.: (d)
45. Consider the statements regarding the Home Rule League.
1. S. Subramaniya Ayer was on associate of Annie Besant.
2. It started on behalf of the Indian National Congress.
3. It changed its name to Swarajya Sabha.
4. Its flag had the Union Flag on it.
Which of the following are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) Only 1 and 2
Ans.: (c)
46. Match List-I and List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below:
List-I List-II
a. Faulting 1. Yardangs
b. Wave erosion 2. Kettle Hole
c. Ice Scouring 3. Escarpment
d. Wind Erosion 4. Stacks
Codes:
a b c d
(a) 3 4 1 2
(b) 4 3 1 2
(c) 3 4 2 1
(d) 4 3 2 1
Ans.: (c)
47. Carefully read the following assertion(A) and reason(R) and select the correction from the codes:
Assertion (A): Seandinavian countries have a regressive age-sex population structure
Reason (R): The population growth rate is negative in these countries. For the selecting the correct answer, use the following code:
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true.
Ans.: (b)
48. Match List-I and List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below:
List-I (Major cultural region of world) List-II (inhabitants)
a. Arctic region 1. Eskimos
b. Desert 2. The Indians, Negroes and Immigrants
c. Latin-American Region 3. Samoans, Tahitian, Tongan, etc.
d. Pacific Oceanic Region 4. Caravan
Code:
a b c d
(a) 4 1 3 2
(b) 1 4 2 3
(c) 1 3 2 4
(d) 4 2 3 1
Ans.: (b)
49. Match List-I with List-II according to Koppen’s Climatic classification system and select the correct answer from the codes given:
List-I (Climate Types) List-II (Characteristics)
a. Af i. Humid Tropical Climate
b. Aw ii. Tropical Humid and Dry climate
c. Am iii. Monsoon Cliate
d. As iv. Dry summers
Codes:
a b c d
(a) i ii iii iv
(b) ii iii I iv
(c) iii i ii iv
(d) iv ii I iii
Ans.: (a)
50. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the codes given below:
Assertion (A): The Peru desert is recognized as a Cold Desert
Reason (R): The temperature of Humbolt current plays a dominant role in controlling the surface atmospheric conditions of the coastal areas.
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true.
Ans.: (d)
51. Match the following with respect to the occurrence of races in List-II to the type of Races in List-I.
List-I Races List-II Area of Existence
a. the Turko-Iranian 1. Rajasthan and Punjab
b. The Indo-Aryan 2. Odisha and Assam
c. The Seytho-Dravidian 3. West India (Gujarat to Karnataka)
d. The Mongolo-Dravidian 4. North Western Frontier Agency
Codes:
a b c d
(a) 4 1 3 2
(b) 1 4 2 3
(c) 1 3 2 4
(d) 4 2 3 1
Ans.: (a)
52. India is an agricultural country, where most of the population directly or indirectly involved in this sector. Regarding agriculture in India, which one of the following statements is/are not correct?
1. Bajra is a Kharif crop, which requires 25o-31oC temperature and 40-50 cm rainfall.
2. Cotton is categorized into three groups long-staple, medium staple and short-staple.
3. Currently, India accounts for about 50% of the world’s total jute production.
4. India is the second-largest producer of silk and the largest consumer of silk in the world.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 2 and 4
(b) Only 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) Only 4
Ans.: (c)
53. Match important projects in List-I with the area of implementation in List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below:
List-I (Multipuropse) List-II (Area/Place of implementation)
a. Tungabhadra Multipurpose Project 1. Lower Narmada Valley, Gujarat
b. The Sardar Sarovar Project 2. Nalgonda District, Telangana
c. Nagarajuna Sagar Project 3. Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka
d. Bhakra Nagal Project 4. Punjab, Haryana and Rajasthan
Codes:
a b c d
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 3 1 4
(c) 3 1 2 4
(d) 4 2 1 3
Ans.: (a)
54. Among the following options which mountain pass doesn’t belongs to the correct state?
(a) Shipki La → Himachal Pradesh
(b) Aghil Pass → Uttarakhand
(c) Dipher Pass → Arunachal Pradesh
(d) Jelep La → Sikkim
Ans.: (b)
55. Which of the following factors are responsible for breaks in the monsoon?
I. Origin of tropical cyclones in Bay of Bengal
II. Erratic behavior of 2nd equatorial troughs
III. Inadequate heating of Tibetan Plateau
IV. Southern Branch of South West Tropical Jet re-establish over northern India
Choose the correct options from below:
Option:
(a) I and IV
(b) I, II and III
(c) I, II and IV
(d) IV and III
Ans.: (b)
56. Which of the following river/rivers are exhibiting the antecedent drainage pattern in Odisha?
(a) The Mahanadi and the Brahmani
(b) The Brahmani and the Baitarini
(c) The Mahanadi and the Baitarini
(d) The Baitarini and the Rushikulya
Ans.: (a)
57. Black Earth soil has been developed in which region of Odisha?
(a) Brahmani Basin
(b) Mayurbhanj
(c) Anugul – Athamallik and Boudh
(d) Sambalpur Valley
Ans.: (c)
58. Match the morphological units of Rolling uplands (List-I) with the correct river basin (List-II)
List-I (Morphological Units) List-II (Basin Associated)
a. The Rajgangpur – Panposh Uplands 1. Ib Basin
b. the Jharsuguda Uplands 2. Northern Tel Basin
c. The Balagir – Titlagarh – Patnagarh Uplands 3. The Sabari Basin
d. the Malakanagiri Uplands 4. Koel and the Sankh Rivers
Codes:
a b c d
(a) 4 1 2 3
(b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 3 2 1 4
(d) 2 3 1 4
Ans.: (a)
59. Which of the following is associated with Chilika lake?
I. First Indian wetland under the Ramsar Convention.
II. Irrawaddy dolphins
III. Lacustrine plain
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) I and II only
(b) I and III only
(c) I only
(d) I, II and III
Ans.: (d)
60. Odisha experiences which types of climates according to Koppen’s climatic classification?
(a) Tropical Savanna
(b) Humid Subtropical
(c) Mediterranean
(d) Subtropical steppe
Ans.: (a)
61. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of ‘Objective Resolution’ of Indian Constitution?
(1) The Author of this Resolution was Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(2) It was adopted by Constituent Assembly on January 22, 1947
(3) The goal of this Resolution was to declare India as a Sovereign, Socialist, Democratic Republic
(4) This Resolution later framed as the Preamble of Indian Constitution
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 1 and 2
Ans.: (b)
62. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of ‘Constituent Assembly’?
(1) The Constituent Assembly was constituted under the scheme of ‘Cabinet Mission Plan’
(2) The total strength of Constituent Assembly originally was 369
(3) 296 seats were allotted to British India
(4) 73 seats to Princely States
(a) 2 and 3
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 1 and 3
Ans.: (d)
63. Consider the following pairs in respect of ‘Sources of Indian Constitution’ and pick up the right matchings.
Item Source
(1) Office of Governor - England
(2) Public Service Commission - Govt. of India
(3) Freedom of Trade & Commerce - USA
(4) The Language of Preamble of Constitution - Australia
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 3 and 4
Ans.: (c)
64. Which of the following Arti9cles of Indian Constitution are not related to each other?
(1) Art. 12 and Art. 36
(2) Art. 13 and Art. 368
(3) Art. 22 and Art. 32(2)
(4) Art. 141 and Art. 214
(a) 2 and 3
(b) 4 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) All are related
Ans.: (d)
65. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of Lame Duck Politician?
(1) Having lost a re-election bid
(2) Choosing not to seek another term after expiration of his/her term.
(3) No term limit running for particular office again
(4) Abolition of Office after his/her official term
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) None of the above
(d) All above
Ans.: (a)
66. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of Basic Structure of Indian Constitution?
(1) It is a form of Judicial Review
(2) It is used to test the legality of any legislation by the Courts
(3) The Doctrine of Basic Structure of Constitution gave free hand to Parliament to amend any part of Constitution
(4) The Constitution of India defines ‘basic structure’ in terms of Federalism, Secularism, Fundamental Rights and Socialism.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 3 and 4
Ans.: (a)
67. Entry 5 of list II of Seventh Schedule of Indian Constitution deals with -
(a) Public Order
(b) Public Health
(c) State Pensions
(d) Local Governments
Ans.: (d)
68. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of Art. 243 of Indian Constitution?
(1) Art. 243 (C) provides representation of chairpersons of Panchayats at the Village level in the Panchayats at the District level.
(2) Art. 243 (D) provides representation for women to the offices of chairperson in Panchayats at village level.
(3) Art. 243 (I) is related to power to levy taxes by Panchayats.
(4) Art. 243 (J) is related to bar on the courts to call in question the election of Panchayats.
(a) 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 4
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 1 and 3
Ans.: (c)
69. Which of the following statement/s is/are not correct in respect of G20 Developing Nations?
(1) It is a block of developing nations established on April 30, 2001
(2) This group emerged at the 5th Ministerial NATO Conference
(3) The Headquarters of G20 developing Nations is at Patna
(4) The Member State of G20 Developing Nations is 20 countries
(a) 2 and 3
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 1 and 2
Ans.: (c)
70. During his visit to Australia PM Narendra Modi spelled about 3 Cs, 3 Ds, and 3 Es of India Australia friendship. Which one of the following is correct in respect of 3 Cs?
(a) Commonwealth, Cricket and Curry
(b) Cricket, Career and Candid
(c) Cricket, Coffee and Comfort
(d) Care, Career and Connect
Ans.: (d)
71. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct in respect of ‘Sengol’?
(1) ‘Sengol’ signifies the transfer of power from British to Indians
(2) It symbolizes the Marathi culture of transfer of power from one King of other King
(3) The ‘Sengol’ has been reintroduced in the new Parliament Bhavan of India
(4) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru accepted ‘Sengol’ at 10.45 PM on August 14, 1947 from Adhinam of Kerala
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 3
Ans.: (a)
72. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of withdrawal of Rs. 2000 Currency Notes from circulation?
(1) This move is a part of RBI’s Compound Note Policy
(2) It’s aim is to provide the Public with high quality Currency Notes
(3) Rs. 2000 Currency Notes were introduced in the year 2015
(4) Printing of Rs. 2000 Currency Notes were stopped in the year 2018-19
(a) 2 and 4
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 4
Ans.: (a)
73. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct regarding ‘Forest-PLUS 2.0 Programme’?
(1) This programme is a Five-year partnership between USAID and Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change
(2) Forest-PLUS 2.0 Programme denotes ‘Forest for Wealth and Health’
(3) Tetra Tech is building capacity across landscapes in three States in India
(4) The three States which come under this programme are; Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka and Bihar
(a) 2 and 4
(b) 1 and 4
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 and 4
Ans.: (c)
74. Which one of the following statements is not correct in respect of ‘Euxine Sea’?
(a) This Sea is also known as ‘Red Sea’.
(b) It is located between Eastern Europe and Western Asia.
(c) It serves as a barrier for NATO to counter Russia.
(d) The earliest known name of the Sea is ‘the Sea of Zalpa’.
Ans.: (a)
75. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct in respect of ‘The First Ever Census of Water bodies in India-2023’ released by Ministry of Jal Shakti?
(1) The Census enumerated a total 24,24,540 water bodies across the country
(2) West Bengal has the highest number of Tanks
(3) Tamil Nadu has the highest number of Lakes
(4) Andhra Pradesh leads in water conservation schemes.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 4 only
Ans.: (a)
76. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of ‘Nomadic Elephant’?
(1) It is an Indo-Mongolian joint military exercise
(2) The Fourteenth Edition of this exercise took place in the year 2019
(3) This exercise is aimed to train Elephants in Defence activities
(4) The First Edition of ‘Nomadic Elephant’ took place in Gwalior, Madhya Pradesh.
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 2
Ans.: (a)
77. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct in respect of ‘Batagaika Crater’?
(1) The Batagaika Crater is situated in Australia Far East
(2) This region has become a focal point for studying the effects of climate change on permafrost.
(3) The Batagaika Crater is affectionately referred as ‘The Sky-in’
(4) The permafrost thaws release enormous quantities of Organic Carbon.
(a) 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 4
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 and 4
Ans.: (d)
78. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of ‘Talisman Sabre Exercise – 2023’?
(1) USA and France have initiated the ‘Talisman Sabre Exercise – 2023’
(2) It is a joint military exercise of the two countries
(3) This Exercise is held for every Four Years
(4) India attended as an Observer to this military exercise
(a) 2 and 4
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 3
Ans.: (a)
79. Which of the following statements are not correct in respect of ‘Rajasthan Minimum Guaranteed Income Bill – 2023’
(1) Under this Scheme every family is entitled to guaranteed employment for 125 days per year.
(2) This Scheme provides guaranteed minimum monthly Pension fixed at Rs. 2000/- per month for specific categories
(3) This scheme encompasses the flagship of ‘Jawahar Rozgar Yojana’ for urban areas.
(4) To implement this programme Government has estimated additional expenditure of Rs. 2,500 Crore annually.
(a) 3 and 4
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 and 4
Ans.: (c)
80. Which of the following statements are not correct?
According to the Second Edition of National Multidimensional Poverty Index-2023 released by NITI Aayog –
(1) 13.5 Crore people escaped from multidimensional poverty
(2) In rural areas there is rapid decline in poverty from 32.50% to 19.28%
(3) Bihar registered the largest decline in the number of poor individuals.
(4) This Report covered a comprehensive analysis of poverty across 1075 Administrative Districts
(a) 2 and 4
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 3
Ans.: (b)
81. Which State Government in India has taken significant step to introduce an educational imitative called ‘CM Rise Schools’?
(a) Madhya Pradesh
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Kerala
(d) Andhra Pradesh
Ans.: (a)
82. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of ‘Agreement on use of Local Currencies for cross-border transactions’?
(1) India and UAE have signed a memorandum in this Agreement.
(2) This agreement enables a frame work for trade settlements in their respective national currencies.
(3) This Agreement was signed by the Prime Ministers of India and UAE
(4) Peekay Intermark Ltd. And Reserve Bank of India were the First users of this system
(a) 2 and 4
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 1 and 3
Ans.: (c)
83. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of ‘Namda Project’?
(1) This project is a part of ‘Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana’.
(2) Under this programme 2200 candidates from Assam were trained
(3) The aim of this project is to preserve the endangered crafts of wool weaving.
(4) This project works under public-private partnership
(a) 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 4
Ans.: (b)
84. The Bhaumakaras started on era in the year 736 CE. What was the last known date mentioned in the Bhauma-kara records.
(a) 187
(b) 190
(c) 204
(d) 213
Ans.: (d)
85. The Bhajas of Khinjali-mandala initially had their capital at Dhritipura, but later on they shifted their capital to
(a) Vanjulvaka
(b) Vinitapura
(c) Yayatinagara
(d) Vyaghrakota
Ans.: (d)
86. With reference to Mahasivagupta Balarjuna consider the following:
1. He was the Panduvamsi king of South Kosala with is capital located at Sirpur.
2. He extended his dominion by capturing Suvarnapura, modern Sonepur.
3. He ruled for more than 57 years.
How many statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Ans.: (c)
87. With reference to the creation of a separate province of Orissa consider the following statements.
1. The British Parliament’s Constitution of Orissa order, 1936 got the approval of the king on 3 March 1936 and Orissa became a new province on 1 April 1936.
2. Sir John Austin Hubback was appointed as the first Governor of Orissa.
3. Sir Courtney Terel, the Chief Justice of Bihar and Orissa High Court, administered the oath of office to the new Governor.
4. The inaugural function was held in Ravenshaw College Hall at Cuttack.
How many statements give above is/are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Ans.: (d)
88. Mahatma Gandhi visited Odisha in
1. March 1921
2. August 9125
3. December 1927
4. September 1930
Which of the above is not correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Only 3
(d) Only 4
Ans.: (d)
89. Kapilendradeva subdued many feudatory chiefs who rebelled against him. Which of the following did not belong to this category?
(a) The Gangas of Khemundi
(b) The Chauhans of Patna
(c) The Matsyas of Oddadi
(d) The Silavamsis of Nandapura
Ans.: (d)
90. Which of the following pair is not correctly matched?
(a) Bichitrananda Das : Kujibara Patrika
(b) Utkal Dipika : Gauri Shankar Ray
(c) Sambalpur Hitaisini : Nilamani Vidyaratna
(d) Dainika Asha : Sashi Bhusana Rath
Ans.: (a)
91. Where do we come across the madhavapura mahavihara?
(a) Ratnagiri
(b) Udayagiri
(c) Lalitagiri
(d) Pushpagiri
Ans.: (b)
92. What is not true about the Prajamandala movement in Odisha?
(a) It was a movement against the obnoxious taxes and ill treatment to the subject population by the feudatory chiefs of the Gadjat states.
(b) Sarangadhara Das, Harekrushna Mahatab, Pabitra Mohan Pradhan and Nabakrushna Choudhury were the important leaders of the movement.
(c) It started with the murder of Major Bezelgate, the Political Agent in Ranapur.
(d) A State Enquiry Committee was constituted by the Government under the chairmanship of Harekrushna Mahatab in 1937 to report on the condition of people in Gadjat states.
Ans.: (d)
93. Subei, Kachela and Jamuda, the three sites in the undivided Koraput district of Odisha, are famous for?
(a) Jaina relics
(b) Buddhist relics
(c) Brahmanical relics
(d) Neolithic tools
Ans.: (a)
94. Consider the following statements regarding the Rig Veda.
1. It mentions the Aryans as a cultural community.
2. It has many commonalities with Avesta.
3. It mentions Saraswati as naditarna.
4. It indicates that the dasyus kept cattle for dairy products.
Which of the following are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) All are correct
Ans.: (b/d)
95. Consider the following statements regarding the Parthians.
1. They had migrated from Iran.
2. They set up a kingdom in East India.
3. Gondophernes was a Parthian king.
4. They are mentioned together with the Shakas in the Sanskrit texts.
Which of the following are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) Only 3 and 4
Ans.: (b)
96. Consider the following statements about Sangam literature.
1. The narrative texts are called Melkanakku.
2. The didactic texts are called Kilkanakku.
3. Thirukkural is a major Sangam text.
4. Many Sangam texts were the works of Brahmana scholars.
Which of the following are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) Only 1 and 4
Ans.: (a)
97. Consider the following pairs
1. Amoghavarsha - A king and a Kannada poet.
2. Pampa - Kannada Poet under Jain influence.
3. Nanniah - Began writing the Mahabharata in Telugu.
4. Ponna - Jain Poet, who wrote on Ramayana themes.
Which of the pairs are correctly matched?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 2 and 4
(d) All are correct
Ans.: (d)
98. Consider the following statements about Buddhism.
1. It was patronized by the Pala kings.
2. Buddha was worshipped as a God in Mahayana Buddhism.
3. Hinayana considers Buddha as an ordinary being who attained Nirvana.
4. Vajrayana focused on Hindu Practices.
Which of the following are correct?
(a) 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Only 3 and 4
(d) All are correct
Ans.: (d)
99. Consider the following statements regarding Alauddin Khalji.
1. He set up three distinct markets one for food grains, one for cloth and the third for horses.
2. A Shahna was posted in the market.
3. The Peasants had to pay land revenue in kind.
4. Slaves were transacted in market during his time.
Which of the following are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) Only 1 and 4
Ans.: (c)
100. Consider the following statements regarding the Subsidiary Alliance in British India.
1. The Indian ruler signing the alliance would agree to the posting of a British Resident.
2. The Indian ruler could employ any European in his state.
3. The Indian ruler would cede a part of his territory for payment of subsidy.
4. Expenses of the British army in the state to be shared with Company.
Which of the following are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) Only 1 and 3
Ans.: (d)
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