Download PDF Prelims Question Paper Set-D
Candidates can calculate their estimated score using the Answer Key for Prelims 2023. The official PT Answer Key 2023 will be released soon after the UPSC Prelims are conducted. The answer key will be available in PDF form for all sets – A, B, C, and D.
Candidates can use the UPSC IAS Answer Key for calculating their approximate score. The candidates can calculate the UPSC CSE 2023 Prelims marks in the Prelims using the following marking criteria: 2 Marks are awarded for each correct answer in Paper I, while 2.5 Marks are allotted in Paper II for each correct answer. However, 1/3rd of the mark allotted to a question is deducted for the wrong answer.
UPSC IAS Prelims Answer Key 2023 with explanation will help students to know their correct and incorrect responses and they can calculate the marks that they are going to score in the Prelims exam. The final selection of the candidates for the IAS post depends on the marks secured in the UPSC Mains exam and Interview. UPSC Prelims Exam is the first step of the selection Process but the marks will not be considered while preparing the Final Merit List.
1. Consider the following statements with reference to India:
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
Option 1 is incorrect:Union Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (M/o MSMEs) has issued Gazette notification to pave way for implementation of the upward revision in the definition and criteria of MSMEs in the country. The new definition and criterion will come into effect from 1st July, 2020.
After 14 years since the MSME Development Act came into existence in 2006, a revision in MSME definition was announced in the Atmnirbhar Bharat package on 13th May, 2020. As per this announcement, the definition of Micro manufacturing and services units was increased to Rs. 1 Crore of investment and Rs. 5 Crore of turnover. The limit of small unit was increased to Rs. 10 Crore of investment and Rs 50 Crore of turnover. Similarly, the limit of medium unit was increased to Rs. 20 Crore of investment and Rs. 100 Crore of turnover. The Government of India on 01.06.2020 decided for further upward revision of the MSME Definition. For medium Enterprises, now it will be Rs. 50 Crore of investment and Rs. 250 Crore of turnover.
Option 2 is correct: The Government has taken measures for easing access to credit for MSMEs. As reported by Reserve Bank of India (RBI) some of the measures taken by RBI for improving flow of credit to MSME sector are as under:
Link: https://msme.gov.in/faqs/q1-what-definition-msme
2. With reference to Central Bank digital currencies, consider the following statements:
With of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Alternatives to SWIFT and the U.S. dollar are coming from two directions: cryptocurrencies and central bank digital currencies. Cryptocurrencies (or “crypto”) are a form of payment that can circulate without the need for a central monetary authority such as a government or bank and are created using distributed ledger technologies and cryptographic techniques that enable people to buy, sell or trade them securely in a decentralized way. These decentralized networks are controlled by no one and enable privacy from government intrusion or intervention.
Link: https://www.brookings.edu/techstream/the-innovators-dilemma-and-u-s-adoption-of-a-digital-dollar/
Statement 2 is correct:Currently, access to digital central bank money is limited to central bank operating hours, traditionally less than 24 hours a day and usually five days a week.8 CBDCs could be available 24 hours a day and seven days a week or only during certain specified times (such as the operating hours of largevalue payment systems). CBDC could be available permanently or for a limited duration (eg it could be created, issued and redeemed on an intraday basis).
Link: https://www.bis.org/cpmi/publ/d174.pdf
3. In the context of finance, the term ‘beta’ refers to
Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
Beta is a numeric value that measures the fluctuations of a stock to changes in the overall stock market. Beta measures the responsiveness of a stock's price to changes in the overall stock market. On comparison of the benchmark index for e.g. NSE Nifty to a particular stock returns, a pattern develops that shows the stock's openness to the market risk.This helps the investor to decide whether he wants to go for the riskier stock that is highly correlated with the market (beta above 1), or with a less volatile one (beta below 1).
Beta is the key factor used in the Capital Asset Price Model (CAPM) which is a model that measures the return of a stock. The volatility of the stock and systematic risk can be judged by calculating beta. A positive beta value indicates that stocks generally move in the same direction with that of the market and the vice versa.
Link: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/definition/beta
4. Consider the following statements:
How many of the above statements are correct
Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
Option 1 is incorrect:In India, banks are the predominant agency for delivery of micro-credit. In 1970, IlabenBhat, founder member of ‘SEWA’(Self Employed Women’s Association) in Ahmadabad, had developed a concept of ‘women and micro-finance’. The Annapurna MahilaMandal’ in Maharashtra and ‘Working Women’s Forum’ in Tamilnadu and many National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD)-sponsored groups have followed the path laid down by ‘SEWA’. ‘SEWA’ is a trade union of poor, self-employed women workers. Since 1987 ‘Mysore Resettlement and Development Agency’ (MYRADA) has promoted Credit Management Groups (CMGs). CMGs are similar to self-help groups. The basic features of this concept promoted by MYRADA are: 1] Affinity, 2] Voluntarism, 3] Homogeneity and 4] Membership should be limited to15-20 persons. Aim of the CMG is to bestow social empowerment to women. In 1991-92 NABARD started promoting self-help groups on a large scale. And it was the real take-off point for the ‘SHG movement’. In 1993, the Reserve Bank of India also allowed SHGs to open saving accounts in banks. Facility of availing bank services was a major boost to the movement.
Link: https://ncwapps.nic.in/pdfReports/SHG-Maharashtra.pdf
Option 2 is correct: Self Help Groups (SHGs) are small groups of poor people. The members of an SHG face similar problems. They help each other, to solve their problems. SHGs promote small savings among their members. The savings are kept with the bank. This is the common fund in the name of the SHG. The SHG gives small loans to its members from its common fund.
Link: https://vikaspedia.in/social-welfare/rural-poverty-alleviation-1/self-help-groups/overview-of-shgs
Option 3 is correct:The Indian micro finance sector has seen tremendous growth in the last few years. GOI has taken initiatives to widen the reach of RRBs all over India, especially in rural areas where commercial banks and other financial institution are beyond the reach of rural poor. Micro financing is one of the distinctive functional areas of RRBs.
The two important models of microfinance involving credit linkages with banks in India are
Link: http://pggc46.ac.in/images/RRBS.pdf
5. Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
India’s public sector health care system largely focuses on curative care with limited preventive, promotive and rehabilitative care.
Statement-II:
Under India’s decentralized approach to health care delivery, the States are primarily responsible for organizing health services.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
Option 1 is correct: The primary objective of India’s health care system is to Improve health status through concerted policy action in all sectors and expand preventive, promotive, curative, palliative and rehabilitative services provided through the public health sector with focus on quality.
Link: https://main.mohfw.gov.in/sites/default/files/9147562941489753121.pdf
Option 2 is correct:All Indian citizens can get free outpatient and inpatient care at government facilities. Under India’s decentralized approach to health care delivery, the states are primarily responsible for organizing health services. Because of severe shortages of staff and supplies at government facilities, many households seek care from private providers and pay out-of-pocket. For low-income people, the government recently launched the tax-financed National Health Protection Scheme (Ayushman Bharat-PradhanMantri Jan ArogyaYojana, or PM-JAY), which allows them to also get cashless secondary and tertiary care at private facilities. There are also a handful of health insurance arrangements for specific population groups like government employees and factory workers. Private voluntary insurance is available, but uptake is limited.
Link: https://www.commonwealthfund.org/international-health-policy-center/countries/india
Both statements 1 and 2 are correct but statement 2 is not the correct explanation for statement 1.
6. Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
According to the United Nations’ ‘World Water Development Report, 2022’, India extracts more than quarter of the world’s groundwater withdrawal each year.
Statement-II:
India needs to extract more than a quarter of the World’s groundwater each year to satisfy the drinking water and sanitation needs of almost 18% of world’s population living in its territory.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
7. Consider the following statements:
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
Option: aArticle 355, It shall be the duty of the Union to protect every State against external aggression and internal disturbance and to ensure that the government of every State is carried on in accordance with the provisions of this Constitution.
Option b :-It doesn’t exempt
Option C: -A confession is an explicit admission of guilt from an accused. Evidence extracted from an accused often proves to be substantive as no evidence can supersede an explicit confession from an accused.
8. Which one of the following countries has been suffering from decades of civil strife and food shortages and was in news in the recent past for its very severe famine?
Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
9. Consider the following statements:
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
Option 1 is correct
Option 2 is also correct
10. Consider the following statements in respect of election to the President of India:
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
option 1 and 2 and 3 is wrong
11. Consider the following countries:
How many of the above-mentioned countries share a land border the Ukraine?
Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
12. With reference to the Earth’s atmosphere, which one of the following statements is correct?
Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
13. Consider the following statements:
Statements-I:
The soil in tropical rain forests is rich in nutrients.
Statements-II:
The high temperature and moisture of tropical rain forests cause dead organic matter in the soil to decompose quickly.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
14. Consider the following statements:
Statements-I:
The temperature contrast between continents and oceans is greater during summer than in winter.
Statements-II:
The specific heat of water is more than that of land surface.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
15. Consider the following statements:
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
16. With reference to coal-based thermal power plants in India, consider the following statements:
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
17. “Wolbachia method’ is sometimes talked about with reference to which one of the following?
Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
Wolbachia are extremely common bacteria that occur naturally in 50 per cent of insect species, including some mosquitoes, fruit flies, moths, dragonflies and butterflies.
The World Mosquito Program's innovative Wolbachia method is helping communities around the world prevent the spread of mosquito-borne disease.
It works everywhere that Aedes aegypti is found, it complements other techniques and has proven potential for long-term success.
18. Consider the following activities:
How many of the above activities are often considered and discussed for carbon capture and sequestration?
Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
19. ‘Aerial metagenomics’ best refers to which one of the following situations?
Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
Genome-centric metagenomics is a field occupied with the retrieval of genomes from samples containing a mixture of microbes, such as soil, wastewater, or the gastrointestinal system. Typically, the overall aim is to study the structure and function of the microbes, often in the dynamic context of their natural environments or by their association with a host (microbiomics).
Metagenomics | From sample-to-answer | DNASense
20. ‘Microsatellite DNA’ is used in the case of which one of the following?
Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
Microsatellites are distributed nonrandomly in the genomic region, most probably due to their effect on cell cycle, DNA replication, chromatin organization, recombination, and gene activity, etc. (Li et al., 2002). Microsatellites are present in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes, but infrequent in Human Immunodeficiency Virus Type 1 (HIV-1). Thus A seems to be correctr answer
Microsatellite DNA - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics
21. With reference to the Indian History, Alexander Rea, A. H. Longhurst, Robert Sewell, James Burgess and Walter Elliot were associated with
Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
These are names of archaeologist who worked mainly in South British India.
22. consider the following pairs:
State Well known for
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
Bhaja Caves are a group of 22 rock-cut caves dating back to the 2nd century BC located in the city of Pune, India. Bhaja Caves are the best example of Buddhist cave architecture in India.
Sittanavasal Cave (also, Arivar Koil) is a 2nd-century Tamil ?rama?a complex of caves in Sittanavasal village in Pudukottai district of Tamil Nadu, India. The Sittanavasal Cave, also known as Arivar Kovil, is a Jain monastery of the 7th century
Besnagar was probably an important ancient temples and pilgrimage site. Two major archaeological excavations in the 20th-century have revealed the pillar to be a part of an ancient V?sudeva temple site.
23. Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
7th August is declared as the National Handloom Day.
Statement-II:
It was in 1905 that the Swadeshi Movement was launched on the same day.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
In 2015, the Government of India decided to designate the 7th August every year, as the National Handloom Day.
August 7 was designated to celebrate National Handloom Day to memorialize the 'Swadeshi' Movement.
An official declaration began in Calcutta Town Hall to boycott foreign goods in favour of Indian-made items on August 7, 1905.
National Handloom Day | MyGov.in
24. Consider the following statements in respect of the National Flag of India according to the Flag Code of India, 2002:
Statement-I:
One of the standard sizes of the National Flag of India is 600 mm * 400 mm.
Statement-II:
The ratio of the length to the height (width) of the Flag shall be 3:2.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
The standard sizes of the National Flag shall be as follows:
i. Flag Size No 1 – Dimensions in mm = 6300 x 4200
ii. Flag Size No 2 – Dimensions in mm = 3600 x 2400
iii. Flag Size No 3 – Dimensions in mm = 2700 x 1800
iv. Flag Size No 4 – Dimensions in mm = 1800 x 1200
v. Flag Size No 5 – Dimensions in mm = 1350 x 900
vi. Flag Size No 6 – Dimensions in mm = 900 x 600
vii. Flag Size No 7 – Dimensions in mm = 450 x 300
viii. Flag Size No 8 – Dimensions in mm = 225 x 150
viii. Flag Size No 9 – Dimensions in mm = 150 x 100
The ratio of width of the flag to its length is two to three.
National Flag - Embassy of India | Finland and Estonia - (indembhelsinki.gov.in)
25. Consider the following statements in respect of the Constitution Day:
Statement-I:
The Constitution Day is celebrated on 26th November every year to promote constitutional values among citizens.
Statement-II:
On 26th November, 1949, the constituent Assembly of India set up a Drafting Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr. B. R. Ambedkar to prepare a Draft Constitution of India.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
Constitution Day also known as 'Samvidhan Divas', is celebrated in our country on 26th November every year to commemorate the adoption of the Constitution of India.
On 26th November 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India adopted the Constitution of India, which came into effect from 26th January 1950.
26. Consider the following statements:
Statement – I:
Switzerland is one of the leading exporters of gold in terms of value.
Statement – II:
Switzerland has the second largest gold reserves in the world.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
In 2021, Switzerland exported $86.7B in Gold, making it the 1st largest exporter of Gold in the world. At the same year, Gold was the 1st most exported product in Switzerland.
The USA has held its first position in gold reserves for several years. Gold makes up 79% of the USA’s foreign reserve (the only countries above this are Venezuela with 82.4% and Portugal with 80.1%). It has nearly the stock of the following top three countries combined. USA is followed by the Germany and Italy.
Top 10 Countries With The Largest Gold Reserves (tomorrowmakers.com)
Gold in Switzerland | OEC - The Observatory of Economic Complexity
27. Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
Recently, the United States of America (USA) and the European Union (EU) have launched the Trade and technology council.
Statement-II:
The USA and the EU claim that through this they are trying to bring technological progress and physical productivity under their control.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
28. Consider the following statement:
Statement – I:
India accounts for 3.2% of global export of goods.
Statement-II:
Many local companies and some foreign companies operating in India have taken advantage of India’s ‘Production-linked Incentive’ scheme.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
As per the WTO data released in 2022, India’s share in global exports for merchandise was 1.9 % and in global imports was 4.1 %. India’s share in global exports was 3.5 % and imports was 3.2 %.
29. Consider the following statements:
The ‘Stability and Growth Pact’ of the European Union is a treaty that
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
Stability and Growth Pact
The Stability and Growth Pact (SGP) is a set of rules designed to ensure that countries in the European Union pursue sound public finances and coordinate their fiscal policies.
Stability and Growth Pact (europa.eu)
Stability and Growth Pact (SGP) Definition (investopedia.com)
30. Consider the following statements:
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
The Global Compact for Safe, Orderly and Regular Migration (A/RES/73/195), is the first intergovernmental agreement, prepared under the auspices of the United Nations, to cover all dimensions of international migration in a holistic and comprehensive manner. It was adopted at an intergovernmental conference on migration in Marrakesh, Morocco on 10 December 2018.
It is a non-binding document that respects states’ sovereign right to determine who enters and stays in their territory and demonstrates commitment to international cooperation on migration.
Global Compact for Safe, Orderly and Regular Migration (GCM) | OHCHR
31. Considder the following statements in relation to Janani Suraksha Yojana:
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
JananiSurakshaYojana
Source:
http://www.nrhmorissa.gov.in/writereaddata/Upload/Guidelines/Guideline%20for%20JSY.pdf
https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1843841
32. Consider the following statements in the context of intervention being undertaken under Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy:
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
AnameiaMukt Bharat Strategy
Source:
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1910377
https://anemiamuktbharat.info/interventions/
33. Consider the following statements:
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
Carbon fibres
Source:
https://iopscience.iop.org/article/10.1088/1757-899X/971/3/032011/pdf
34. Consider the following action:
In how many of the above actions is the function of accelerometer required?
Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
Accelerometer
35. Which reference to the role of biofilter in Recirculating Aquaculture System, consider the following statement
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
Biofilter
Source:
https://core.ac.uk/download/pdf/33720948.pdf
36. Consider the following pairs:
Object in space |
Description |
|
1 |
Cepheids |
Giant clouds of dust and gas in space |
2. |
Nebulae |
Stars which brighten and dim periodically |
3. |
Pulsars |
Neutron stars that, are formed when massive stars run out of fuel and collaspe |
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
Source:
37. Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System?
Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
https://www.gps.gov/systems/gnss/
38. Consider the following statements:
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
39. Consider the following statements regarding mercury pollution:
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
40. With reference to green hydrogen, consider the following statements:
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
https://afdc.energy.gov/vehicles/how-do-fuel-cell-electric-cars-work
41. With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements:
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
https://dgfscdhg.gov.in/about-homeguard
42. With reference to India, consider the following pairs:
|
Action |
The Act under which it is covered |
1 |
Unauthorized wearing of police or military uniforms |
The Official Secrets Act, 1923 |
2. |
Knowingly misleading or otherwise interfering with a police officer or military officer when engaged in their duties |
The Indian Evidence Act, 1872 |
3. |
Celebratory gunfire which can endanger the personal safety of others |
The Arms (Amendment) Act, 2019 |
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
43. Consider the following pairs:
|
Regions often mentioned in news |
Reason for being in news |
1 |
North Kivu and Ituri |
War between Armenia and Azerbaijan |
2. |
Nagorno-Karabakh |
Insurgency in Mozambique |
3. |
Kherson and aporizhzhia |
Dispute between Israel and Lebanon |
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
44. Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
Israel has established diplomatic relations with some Arab States.
Statement-II:
The ‘Arab Peach Initiative’ mediated by Saudi Arabia was signed by Israel and Arab League.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
Both the statement is correct
Saudi Arabia, as the main broker of the peace plan, has an obvious stake in its success.
While they remain proponents of resolving the conflict with Israel through negotiations, they
have also made it clear that such resolution will depend on Israel’s response to the peace plan.
Source: - http://www.macro.org.il/images/upload/items/91423268104123.pdf
45. Consider the following pairs with regard to sports awards.
1. |
Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award |
For the most spectacular and outstanding performance by a sportsperson over period of last four years |
2 |
Arjuna Award |
For the lifetime achievement by a sportperson |
3. |
Dronocharya Award |
To honour eminent coaches who have successfully trained sportsperson or teams |
4. |
Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puraskar |
To recognize the contribution made by sportspersons even after their retirement |
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
Option 1 and option 3 is correct
46. Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
Link:
https://www.chess.com/events/2022-fide-chess-olympiad
47. Consider the following pairs:
|
Area of conflict mentioned in news |
Country where it is located |
1 |
Donbas |
Syria |
2. |
Kachin |
Ethiopia |
3. |
Tigray |
North Yemen |
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
International Relations
48. In the recent years Chad, Guinea, Mali and Sudan caught the international attention for which one of the following reason common to all the them?
Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
Link:
https://www.nytimes.com/article/burkina-faso-africa-coup.html
49. Consider the following heavy industries:
Green hydrogen is expected to play a significant role in decarbonizing how many of the above industries?
Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
Link:
50. Consider the following statements about G-20:
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
Link:
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1882356
51. Consider the following statements:
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
Link:
https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/kanwar-lake-birds-paradise-lost-44693
52. Consider the following pairs:
Port Well known as
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
53. Consider the following trees:
How many of the above are deciduous trees?
Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
Link:
https://www.britannica.com/plant/jackfruit
https://www.britannica.com/plant/teak
54. Consider the following statements:
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
55. Which one of the following is the best example of repeated falls in sea level, giving rise to present-day extensive marshland?
Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
56. Ilmenite and rutile, abundantly available in certain coastal tracts of India, are rich sources of which one of the following?
Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
Link:
https://ibm.gov.in/writereaddata/files/08172015131610Ilmenite%20and%20Rutile.pdf
57. About three-fourths world's cobalt, a metal required for the manufacture of batteries for electric motor vehicles, is produced by:
Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
https://www.nsenergybusiness.com/features/top-cobalt-producing-countries/
58. Which one of the following is a part of the Congo Basin?
Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
59. Consider the following statements:
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
60. With reference to India's projects on connectivity, consider the following statements:
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
61. Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
Interest income from the deposits in Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs) distributed to their investors is exempted from tax, but the dividend is taxable.
Statement-II:
InvITs are recognized as borrowers under the “Secuntization and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest-Act, 2002:
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: any dividend and Interest income from InvITs is completely taxable as per the slab rate of the investor.
Statement 2 is correct: In an 11 February 2021 statement, the Finance Ministry announced that it would be introducing relevant amendments to:
Such amendments aim to augment further funding for the infrastructure and real estate sectors by enabling infrastructure investment trusts (InvITs) and real estate investment trusts (REITs) to easily avail debt financing from investors, including foreign portfolio investors (FPIs).
With InvITs and REITs now recognized as borrowers under the SARFAESI Act, lenders to these trusts shall have adequate statutory enforcement options, absence of which was earlier becoming a constraint for bankers to lend directly at trust level.
62. Consider the following statements
Statement-I:
In the post-pandemic recent past, many Central Banks worldwide had carried out interest rate hikes.
Statement-II:
Central Banks generally assume that they have the ability to counteract the rising consumer prices via monetary policy means.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
Option 1 is correct: a
Condition during the pandemic:During the pandemic, central banks in both advanced and emerging market economies took unprecedented measures to ease financial conditions and support the economic recovery, including interest-rate cuts and asset purchases.
Condition post pandemic:With inflation at multi-decade highs in many countries and pressures broadening beyond food and energy prices, policymakers have pivoted toward tighter policy, where central banks in many emerging markets proactively started to hike rates, followed by their counterparts in advanced economies in the final months of 2021.
Option 2 is correct: Central banks use monetary policy to manage economic fluctuations and achieve price stability, which means that inflation is low and stable. Central banks in many advanced economies set explicit inflation targets. Central bank assumes that they have the ability to counteract the rising consumer prices via monetary policy.
Reason why option 2 is a correct explanation for option no. 1?
In response to the COVID-19 pandemic, central banks took actions to ease monetary policy, provide liquidity to markets, and maintain the flow of credit. To mitigate stress in currency and bond markets, many emerging market central banks used foreign exchange interventions, and for the first time, asset purchase programs. More recently, in response to rapidly growing inflation, central banks around the world have tightened monetary policy by increasing interest rates.
Link: https://www.imf.org/en/About/Factsheets/Sheets/2023/monetary-policy-and-central-banking
63. Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
Carbon markets are likely to be one of the most widespread tools in the fight against climate change Statement-II:
Carbon markets transfer resources from the private sector to the State.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
Option 1 is correct:Carbon markets are a very important tool to reach global climate goals, particularly in the short and medium term. They mobilize resources and reduce costs to give countries and company the space to smooth the low-carbon transition and be able to achieve the goal of net zero emissions in the most effective way possible. Carbon markets incentivize climate action by enabling parties to trade carbon credits generated by the reduction or removal of GHGs from the atmosphere, such as by switching from fossil fuels to renewable energy or enhancing or conserving carbon stocks in ecosystems such as a forest.
Carbon markets are perhaps one of the most effective mechanisms available to encourage decarbonization of all kinds. Put simply, these markets put a price on carbon to incentivize businesses to reduce their carbon emissions where it is most financially feasible, and act now to manage the negative effects they can’t eliminate.
Link: https://www.worldbank.org/en/
Option 2 is incorrect: Carbon markets transfer resources are mostly from the private sector to the private
Link: https://www.economist.com/
Both answer 1 and 2 are correct but statement 2 is not correct explanation of statement 1.
64. Which one of the following activities of the Reserve Bank of India is considered to be part of 'sterilization'?
Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
Operation a is correct:Sterilization usually takes the form of an open market operation, in which a central bank sells or purchases government bonds on an open market in the amount it purchases or sells foreign currency on the foreign exchange market, so that the amount of domestic currency in circulation remains unchanged.The open market operation effectively offsets or sterilizes the impact of the intervention on the monetary base.
What is Sterilization?
Sterilization is a form of monetary action in which a central bankseeks to limit the effect of inflows and outflows of capital on the money supply. Sterilization most frequently involves the purchase or sale of financial assets by a central bank and is designed to offset the effect of foreign exchange intervention.
65. Consider the following markets:
How many of the above are included in capital markets?
Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
Statement 1 and 4 are correct: Bond market and stock markets are part of capital market.
Statement 2 and 3 are incorrect: Call Money market is concerned with short term financial assets and Treasury bills are issued when the government needs money for a short period.
66. Which one of the following best describes the concept of 'Small Farmer Large Field'?
Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
“Small Farmers Large Field (SFLF)” is a collective action model to overcome the disadvantages faced by millions of small and marginal farmers due to diseconomies of scale and lack of bargaining power in the supply chain.
This model is participatory and flexible and allows small farmers to benefit from achieving economies of scale by organizing themselves into groups and synchronizing and harmonizing selected operations.
Link:
67. Consider the following statements:
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Government announces minimum support prices (MSPs) for 22 mandated crops.
Cereals (7) - paddy, wheat, barley, jowar, bajra, maize and ragi
Pulses (5) - gram, arhar/tur, moong, urad and lentil
Oilseeds (8) - groundnut, rapeseed/mustard, toria, soyabean, sunflower seed, sesamum, safflower seed and nigerseed
Raw cotton
Raw jute
Copra
De-husked coconut
Sugarcane (Fair and remunerative price)
Virginia flu cured (VFC) tobacco
Statement 2 is Correct: In India, niger is grown on an area of 2.61 lakh ha mainly during kharif.
However, in Odisha it is a rabi crop.
Statement 3 is correct: The tribal population uses niger seed oil for cooking.
Link:
68. Consider the investments in the following assets:
How many of the above intangible investments?
Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
Only 3 statements are correct
What is an intangible asset?
An intangible asset is an identifiable non-monetary asset, without physical substance, held for use in the production or supply of goods or services, for rental to others, or for administrative purposes.
(Some intangible assets may be contained in or on a physical substance such as a compact disk (in the case of computer software), legal documentation (in the case of a licence or patent) or film (in the case of motion pictures). The cost of the physical substance containing the intangible assets is usually not significant.)
Some examples of intangible assets include brand recognition, goodwill, and intellectual property (patents, domain names, confidential information, inventions, names, and the like).
Link: https://www.mca.gov.in/Ministry/notification/pdf/AS_26.pdf.
A tangible asset is an asset that has physical substance. Examples include inventory, a building, rolling stock, manufacturing equipment or machinery, and office furniture. There are two types of tangible assets: inventory and fixed assets.
69. Consider the following:
For the horizontal tax devolution, the Fifteenth Finance Commission used how many of the above as criteria other than population area and income distance?
Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
The Fifteenth Finance Commission (XVFC)’s ToR was unique and wide ranging in many ways. The Commission was asked to recommend performance incentives for States in many areas like power sector, adoption of DBT, solid waste management etc.Another unique ToR was to recommend funding mechanism for defence and internal security.
Horizontal devolution:
Based on principles of need, equity and performance, overall devolution formula is as follows:
Link: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1693868.
70. Consider the following infrastructure sectors:
On how man of the above does UNOPS Sustainable Investments in Infrastructure and Innovation (S3i) ipitiative focus for its investments?
Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
All four options are correct
Explanation:
Sustainable investing is very high on the UN agenda, as it has become evident that the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) cannot be achieved without substantial input from the private sector. The financing gap is particularly large in infrastructure, where it is further hampered by a lack of bankable infrastructure projects. Leveraging UNOPS’ mandate and its core strengths in infrastructure, procurement and project management, S3i - Sustainable Investments in Infrastructure and Innovation is dedicated to helping make the SDGs a reality. Focusing on affordable housing, renewable energy and health infrastructure, the S3i sustainable infrastructure investments aim to crowd public and private financing into large-scale infrastructure projects in regions that have struggled to attract capital. In addition to money, building a sustainable future requires new ideas.
The UNOPS S3i Innovation initiative boosts innovation with real impact, aiming to close the gap between market needs and capacities. The S3i Innovation Program helps start-ups with high impact potential, innovation height and scalable solutions, and brings together people from corporations, institutions, and academia to solve real problems on the ground.
Link: https://content.unops.org/documents/WANTED-Partnership-Proposals.pdf
71. Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
India, despite having uranium deposits, depends on coal for most of its electricity production.
Statement-II:
Uranium, enriched to the extent of at least 60%, is required for the production of electricity.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
Reference
72. Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
Marsupials are not naturally found in India.
Statement-II:
Marsupials can thrive only in montane grasslands with no predators.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
https://www.britannica.com/animal/marsupial
73. Invasive Species Specialist Group' (that develops Global Invasive Species Database) belongs to which one of the following organizations?
Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
Option a is correct: The Invasive Species Specialist Group (ISSG) is a global network of scientific and policy experts on invasive species, organized under the auspices of the Species Survival Commission (SSC) of the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN). It was developed between 1998 and 2000 as part of the global initiative on invasive species led by the erstwhile Global Invasive Species Programme (GISP).
74. Consider the following fauna:
How many of the above are generally nocturnal or most active after sunset?
Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
https://www.worldlandtrust.org/species/mammals/sambar-deer/
https://www.wti.org.in/news/searching-for-indias-most-endangered-mammal/
https://programs.wcs.org/india/Newsroom/Blog/ID/12547/Icons-of-Anamalai-Lion-Tailed-Macaque
75. Which of the following organisms perform waggle dance for others of their kin to indicate the direction and the distance to a source of their food?
Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
https://www.frontiersin.org/articles/10.3389/fevo.2015.00125/full
76. Consider the following statements:
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
Properties and Benefits of Mushrooms
Sources:
https://www.uclahealth.org/news/7-health-benefits-of-mushrooms
(https://pubmed.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/8729458/)
77. Consider the following statements regarding the Indian squirrels:
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
The Indian palm squirrel or three-striped palm squirrel (Funambuluspalmarum) is a species of rodent in the family Sciuridae (includes tree squirrels, ground squirrels (including chipmunks and prairie dogs, among others), and flying squirrels.)found naturally in India (south of the Vindhyas) and Sri Lanka.
Nesting mostly in self-dug burrows underground, but also make dens in rocky outcroppings and in cavities at the bottom of trees.Ground squirrels nest on the ground, digging burrows, a system of tunnels underground, to live in. They hibernate during the winter in these underground burrows.
Tree squirrels hide away in nests or dens in trees and food to keep warm during the winter. Most tree squirrel nests are called dreys, which are made up of clumped-together collections of leaves, twigs, bark, moss, and other compressed materials.
They are usually very protective of their food sources, often guarding and defending them from birds and other squirrels. Unlike some other species of squirrel, Indian palm squirrel do not hibernate.
Indian palm squirrels are omnivores. They feed mainly on nuts and fruits but will also eat seeds, insects, small mammals and reptiles, eggs, and even sometimes chicks of birds.
Sources:
https://animalia.bio/indian-palm-squirrel
https://www.childhoodbynature.com/the-secret-lives-of-squirrels/
https://a-z-animals.com/blog/where-do-squirrels-nest/
78. Consider the following statements:
Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
Microbes isolated from the vents achieve optimal growth at temperatures higher than 100 °C. Noteworthy examples are Pyrobolus and Pyrodictium, archaea that grow at 105 °C and survive autoclaving. Both the thermophiles and the hyperthermophiles require specialized heat-stable enzymes that are resistant to denaturation and unfolding.Archaebacteria (Thermophiles) are ancient forms of bacteria found in hot water springs and deep-sea hydrothermal vents. They are able to survive in high temperatures (which far exceed 100°C) because their bodies have adapted to such environmental conditions.
Microbial growth or metabolic activity has been reported in permafrost bacteria at −10°C (11) and in the antarcticcryptoendolithic microbial community at temperatures between −5 and −10°C (7, 28), and the temperature limit of bacterial growth in frozen food is generally considered to be −8°C (9). In arctic and antarctic lichens, photosynthetic activity has been observed in a similar temperature range (12) and, more recently, at −17°C (23).
Microorganisms that grow optimally at pH less than 5.55 are called acidophiles. For example, the sulfur-oxidizing Sulfolobus spp. isolated from sulfur mud fields and hot springs in Yellowstone National Park are extreme acidophiles. These archaea survive at pH values of 2.5–3.5. Species of the archaean genus Ferroplasma live in acid mine drainage at pH values of 0–2.9.
Sources:
79. Which one of the following makes a tool with a stick to scrape insects from a hole in a tree or a log of wood?
Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
Orangutans are among the most intelligent primates. They have human-like long-term memory, routinely use a variety of sophisticated tools in the wild and construct elaborate sleeping nests each night from foliage and branches
Sources:
https://www.sci.news/biology/orangutans-hook-tools-06598.html
80. Consider the following:
In the making of how many of the above are hydrofluorocarbons used?
Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) are greenhouse gases (GHGs) commonly used in a wide variety of applications, including refrigeration, air-conditioning (AC), building insulation, fire extinguishing systems, and aerosols.
HFCs are entirely man-made. They are primarily produced for use in refrigeration, air-conditioning, insulating foams and aerosol propellants, with minor uses as solvents and for fire protection. Most HFCs are contained within equipment, so emissions are the result of wear, faulty maintenance, or leakage at the end of a product’s lifetime.
Sources:
81. In which one of the following regions was Dhanyakataka, which flourished as a prominent Buddhist centre under the Mahasanghikas, located?
Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
Dhanyakataka located near the present day Amaravati in Andhra was the capital of Satavahana kings (1st century BCE - 3rd AD).
who were patrons of Mahayana Buddhism. Remnants of a large Buddhist Mahachaitya built by king Ashoka is located here. Xuanzang in his travels stayed at Dhanyakataka and studied AbhidharmaPitaka. He gives a glorious description of the monasteries and Buddhist temples there. This area was also a Vajrayana stronghold where Shakyamuni Buddha is said to have given the Kalachakra Tantra teachings. A large number of images of Buddhas and Bodhisattvas such as Avalokitesvara, Manjusri, Cunda, Maitreya, Vajrapani and Heruka have been found from Amaravati dating up to the 11th century CE, showing the widespread presence of Mahayana Buddhism at this site (
Even though the traditional accounts of the Buddha's visit to Andhra Pradesh are discounted, the literary evidence, as recorded by the Chinese travellerHiuen-Tsang, shows that Buddhism entered Andhradesa by circa 400 B.C. It was only during the reign of Asoka that the Buddhist establishment at Dhanyakataka (today's Dharanikota) attained great recognition.
Dhanyakataka grew as the focal point of Buddhism in Andhradesa. Its importance grew further when it became the capital of the Satavahanas. The Satavahana expansion over coastal Andhra and the shift of the capital to Dhanyakataka
Sources:
https://frontline.thehindu.com/other/advertorial/article30207957.ece
http://www.wayofbodhi.org/wp-content/uploads/2018/06/History-of-Mahayana-in-South-India.pdf
82. With reference to ancient India, consider the following statements:
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
The origin of the concept of stupa was earlier than Buddhism as archaeologists have pointed out early forms of stupas as much older and prehistoric in origin (megaliths), Indus valley
Stupas may have originated as pre-Buddhist tumuli in which sramanaswere buried in a seated position called chaitya.
At its simplest, a stupa is a dirt burial mound faced with stone. In Buddhism, the earliest stupas contained portions of the Buddha’s ashes, and as a result, the stupa began to be associated with the body of the Buddha. Adding the Buddha’s ashes to the mound of dirt activated it with the energy of the Buddha himself.
Before Buddhism, great teachers were buried in mounds. Some were cremated, but sometimes they were buried in a seated, meditative position. The mound of earth covered them up. Thus, the domed shape of the stupa came to represent a person seated in meditation much as the Buddha was when he achieved Enlightenment and knowledge of the Four Noble Truths.
Stupa, Buddhist commemorative monument usually housing sacred relics associated with the Buddha or other saintly persons.Buddhist stupas were originally built to house the earthly remains of the historical Buddha and his associates and are almost invariably found at sites sacred to Buddhism.
Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) on Thursday unearthed two miniature votive stupas dating back 1200 years during landscaping work near the Sarai Tila mound within the grounds of "NalandaMahavihara," a world heritage site in the state's Nalanda district. The stupas, carved from stone, depict Buddha figures.
Beginning in the 7th century CE in India, small miniature terracotta stupas became popular as votive offerings. Devout pilgrims visiting various holy sites and temples throughout Asia would either purchase small votive offerings or make their own.
Sources:
https://www.britannica.com/topic/stupa
83. With reference to ancient South India, Korkai, Poompuhar and Muchiri were well known as
Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
Muziris (Muchiri) (chera) ,Korkai (pandaya) and the discoveries at Arikamedu, Poompuhar, (chola) Kodumanal, among other sites, provide evidence of the Tamils’ international trade activities.
They all are important ports of sangam period.
Sources: NCERT
84. Which one of the following explains the practice of 'Vattakirutal' as mentioned in Sangam poems?
Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
Sangam poems are pervaded with warrior ethics. One such is the practice of “Vattakirutal” where the defeated king committed ritual suicide by straving to death and in this he was accompanied by those who were close to him.
Source:
History of ancient and early medieval India byUpindersingh
85. Consider the following dynasties:
How many of the above dynasties established their kingdoms in early eighth century AD?
Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
The Hoysala Empire was a Kannadiga power originating from the Indian subcontinent that ruled most of what is now Karnataka between the 10th and the 14th centuries.
The Gahadavala dynasty also Gahadavalas of Kannauj was a Rajput dynasty that ruled parts of the present-day Indian states of Uttar Pradesh and Bihar, during 11th and 12th centuries. Their capital was located at Banaras (now Varanasi) in the Gangetic plains, and for a brief period, they also controlled Kannauj.
The Kakatiya dynasty was a Telugu dynasty that ruled most of eastern Deccan region in present-day India between 12th and 14th centuries. Their territory comprised much of the present day Telangana and Andhra Pradesh, and parts of eastern Karnataka, northern Tamil Nadu, and southern Odisha
Yadavas were in The Yadavas of Devagiri was a Medieval Indian dynasty, which at its peak ruled a kingdom stretching from the Narmada river in the north to the Tungabhadra river in the south, in the western part of the Deccan region. Its territory included present-day Maharashtra, North Karnataka and parts of Madhya Pradesh, from its capital at Devagiri.
Sources: NCERT
86. With reference to ancient Indian History, consider the following parts:
Literary work Author
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
Devi-Chandraguptam or Devi-Chandragupta is an Indian Sanskrit-language political drama attributed to Vishakhadeva, who is generally identified with Vishakhadatta.
HammiraMahakavya is a 15th-century Indian Sanskrit epic poem written by the Jain scholar Nayachandra Suri.
The Milindapañha is a Buddhist text which dates from sometime between 100 BC and 200 AD. It purports to record a dialogue between the Indian Buddhist sage N?gasena, and the 2nd century BC Indo-Greek king Menander I (Pali: Milinda) of Bactria, in S?gal?, present-day Sialkot.
Nitivakyamrita (?????????????).—The Jaina writer Somadeva of tenth century A.D. writes a treatise on niti is called Nitivakyamrita. He quotes fragments of the metrical works on polity attributed to Atri, A?giras, Kausika, Garga, Devala, Narada, Parasara, Bhaguri, Bharadvaja, Bh?gu, B?haspati, Sukra, Vyasa etc. (source- https://www.wisdomlib.org/definition/nitivakyamrita)
87. "Souls are not only the property of animal and plant life, but also of rocks, running water and many other natural objects not looked on as living by other religious cects."
The above statement reflects one of the core beliefs of which one of the following religious sects of ancients India?
Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
88. Who among the following rulers of Vijayanagara Empire constructed a large dam across Tungabhadra River and a canal-cum-aqueduct several kilometres long from the river to the capital city?
Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
89. Who among the following rulers of medieval Gujarat surrendered Diu to Portuguese?
Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
Early in the 16th century, the Sultan of Gujarat, Bahadur Shah, came under immense pressure when his kingdom was invaded by the second Mughal Emperor Humayun.
At that juncture, he decided to remain on conciliatory terms with the Portuguese, who had arrived in India at the end of the 15th century, and were at the time an energetic and ambitious maritime power.
In 1534, the Shah signed the Treaty of Bassein with the Portuguese, ceding Diu to the latter, as well as other territories of his empire such as Vasai and the islands that today form Mumbai. The Portuguese obtained Daman from the Shah in 1559.
Source;
NCERT satishchandra
90. By which one of the following Acts was the Governor General of bengal designated as the Governor General of India?
Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
It redesignated the Governor-General of Bengal as the Governor-General of India. For the first time, the government run by him was referred to as the 'Government of India.' His
91. In essence, what does 'Due Process of Law' means?
Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
Due process refers to just, rational, fair, and fair treatment under the regular judicial process. It essentially means due process of law needs the legislation to follow the principle of natural justice.
The Principle of Due Process of Law was originally adopted by the American Constitution. Its founding fathers stated that the United States Constitution guarantees that the government cannot take away a person's basic rights to "life, liberty or property, without due process of law." For the purpose of safeguarding these rights the Constitution of United States provided power to Judiciary to look into fairness of law.
In India the adoption of the principle of Due Process of Law was adopted in the Menaka Gandhi case.
https://blog.ipleaders.in/due-process-of-law/
https://www.upcounsel.com/legal-def-due-process
92. Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
In India, prisons are managed by State Governments with their own rules and regulations for the day-to-day administration of prisons.
Statement-II:
In India, prisons are governed by the Prisons Act, 1894 which expressly kept the subject of prisons in the control of Provincial Governments.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
Prisons Act, 1894 makes it expressly clear that States would have general and specific control over prisons in India.
It is also important to note that the Subject of Prisons is mentioned as Entry 4 in List II in Seventh Schedule.
https://www.mha.gov.in/en/divisionofmha/Women_Safety_Division/prison-reforms
https://www.mha.gov.in/sites/default/files/2023-03/Prisons_act1894_0%5B1%5D%5B1%5D.pdf
93. Which one of the following statements best reflects the Chief purpose of the 'Constitution' of a country?
Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
The chief objective of the Constitution is to establish a limited government i.e. a government which does not have the right to encroach in all spheres of a citizen’s life.
https://constitutionnet.org/sites/default/files/what_is_a_constitution_0.pdf
94. In India, which one of the following Constitutional Amendments was widely believed to be enacted to overcome the judicial interpretations of the Fundamental Rights?
Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act was enacted to overcome the judgement of KeshavandaBharati Case.
This amendment resulted in judicial review restricted the power of review provided to the Judiciary by Constitution of India.
https://blog.ipleaders.in/critical-analysis-42nd-amendment-act-1976/
95. Consider the following organization/bodies in India:
How many of the above are constitutional bodies?
Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
A Constitutional body is a body which is established by the Constitution of India. Such Constitutional bodies can only be created or changed after a Constitutional Amendment bill is passed and not by a regular government bill or a private bill.
National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) was initially constituted by the Central Govt by the National Commission for Backward Classes Act, 1993 (27 of 1993) dated 2.4.1993 and so far the Commission had been reconstituted 7 times up to 2016.
At present Commission has been accorded Constitutional Status and constituted through “The Constitution (One Hundred and Second Amendment) Act, 2018” Act dated 11.8.2018, whereby Article 338B has been inserted, forming a Commission for the socially and educationally backward classes to be known as National Commission for Backward Classes.
National Human Rights Commission is a statutory body established by Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993
National Law Commission is neither established a Constitution nor a statutory. It is formed on the directive of Union Law Ministry.
National Consumer Dispute Redressal Commission has been established by Consumer Protection Act, 1986.
https://www.lawinsider.in/columns/which-are-the-constitutional-bodies-in-india
96. Consider the following statements:
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
Article 71 of the Constitution states that Matters relating to, or connected with, the election of a president or Vice President
97. With reference to Finance Bill and Money Bill in the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements:
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
As per the provisions of Article 117 of the Constitution – Rajya Sabha cannot reject a Finance Bill. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.
Statement 2 is correct, as Rajya Sabha can’t amend but only recommend amendment to a Money Bill as per the provisions of Article 110.
Statement 3 is also correct according to the provisions of Article 110.
https://indiankanoon.org/doc/1704729/
https://indiankanoon.org/doc/72095/
98. Consider the following statements:
Once the Central Government notifies an area as a 'Community Reserve'
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
99. With reference to 'Scheduled Areas' in India, consider the following statements:
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
Statement 1- Is correct. As per the provisions of Article 244 (1) of the Indian Constitution defines Scheduled Areas as the areas defined so by the President of India and are mentioned in the fifth schedule of the Constitution.
Statement 2- Is correct. The largest administrative unit forming the scheduled areas has been the district and the lowest the cluster of villages in the block. Most of the districts form scheduled areas only partially.
Statement 3- Is incorrect as the report on administration of schedule areas is send by Governor of the State to President of India.
https://www.mea.gov.in/Images/pdf1/S6.pdf
100.Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The Supreme Court of India has held in some judgements that the reservation policies made under Article 16(4) of the Constitution of India would be limited by Article 335 for maintenance of efficiency of administration.
Statement-II:
Article 335 of the Constitution of India defines the term 'efficiency of administration'.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct. The Supreme Court in Nagaraj & others vs Union of India and UP Power Corp Ltd vs Rajesh Kumar &Ors has held that there needs to be a balance between reservation provided under Article 16 of the Constitution and efficiency under Article 335.
Statement 2 is incorrect as Article 335 does not define efficiency.
https://indiankanoon.org/doc/1113850/
https://indiankanoon.org/doc/1845552/
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